Just done a bit of a theory paper and was writing for SATB. i had the bass on a D, tenor on Bb, alto on F and was given the Sop. on a D. So this makes a Bbmajor chord, 1st inversion.
Except my teacher has said it's 2nd inversion. But i'm sure it's first.....could someone just confirm for me?
Thanks!
piello

1st inversion.
Bb in the bass is root position.
D is first inversion and F 2nd inversion.

Thanks Sbhoa. That's as i thought then..

But you have doubled the 3rds! [Usually this is bad news but can occasionally happen if the outer parts move in contrary motion]

Not knowing your teacher [who may just have made a mistake or had a senior moment] there could be folk who think the given D at the top means it is 2nd inversion. Thinking of 3 note chords for a moment, I reason thus: Bb D F = root. Put the Bb at the top and you have 1st inversion = D F Bb. Now put the D at the top and you have 2nd inversion F Bb D.

HOWEVER, HOWEVER, HOWEVER!!!!! Positions of triads are worked out from what is at the Bottom NOT what is at the top. So D Bb F and D F Bb are both 1st inversion. In 4 parts, Bass D, Tenor Bb Alto F and Sop F is 1st inversion and so on and so forth.

Thanks, sorry! I meant a Bb at the top. woops. i think i was reading in the wrong clef. But yes, that makes sense, so thanks!