In my theory studies in England, I've been taught the very simple definition that a perfect cadence is V I.

I was discussing this with one of my Hungarian teachers on Friday, and she said that in Hungary a V I cadence would be considered to be perfect if the tonic is in both the top and bottom of the I chord, and imperfect the 3rd or 5th of the I chord are in the soprano/melody. Eg. a C major chord with C in the bass, and E in the soprano would be considered imperfect.

Page 70 of the pink book states: "The move from leading note to tonic can be at the top or in the middle of the chords, although the feeling of finality is stronger when the music ends with the tonic in the melody as well as in the bass."

Has anyone come across this V I imperfect cadence definition before, or is it a purely Hungarian thing?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cadence_(music)

Thanks VH2, but I'm still a little unclear. Wikipedia seems to agree with the Hungarian definition. Does anyone else have thoughts on whether the British definition requires the tonic in the sop and the bass?

Actually, my real question is: What definition does the ABRSM use in their aural tests?